Is John 9:38–39a Original? A Close Look at the Textual Evidence

The Gospel of John records a powerful moment: after healing a man born blind, Jesus finds him again and asks, “Do you believe in the Son of Man?” When the man discovers that Jesus himself is the one speaking, we read in most Bibles:

John 9:35–39 (NET)
Jesus heard that they had thrown him out, so he found the man and said to him, “Do you believe in the Son of Man?” He replied, “And who is he, sir, that I may believe in him?” Jesus told him, “You have seen him; he is the one speaking with you.” He said, “Lord, I believe,” and he worshiped him. Jesus said, “For judgment I have come into this world, so that those who do not see may gain their sight, and the ones who see may become blind.”

However, a small but extremely early group of witnesses omits the words in v. 38 and the opening words of v. 39 (“He said, ‘Lord, I believe,’ and he worshiped him. Jesus said,”). This has led to intense debate among textual scholars.

The Textual Evidence at a Glance

Longer Reading (includes 9:38–39a)	Shorter Reading (omits 9:38–39a)
P⁶⁶, א² (corrected Sinaiticus), A, B, D, L, Δ, θ, Ψ, Byzantine Majority (99.5%+ of all Greek MSS), all Latin Vulgate MSS, Syriac, etc.	P⁷⁵, א* (original Sinaiticus), W, Old Latin codex b, some Coptic witnesses (Copsa, ach²), P. Palau Rib. Inv. 183 (Fayyumic)

Why Some Scholars Prefer the Shorter Reading

Philip W. Comfort (2008) and others argue for omission:

• The omitting witnesses are early and geographically diverse (P⁷⁵ from ~AD 175–225, א*, W, early Egyptian versions).
• No obvious scribal error (homoeoteleuton) explains the omission across such diverse copies.
• The wording ἔφη (“he said”) is rare in John (only 1:23), and the exact form Πιστεύω, κύριε (“I believe, Lord”) is non-Johannine.
• Likely liturgical insertion tied to early baptismal practice (John 9 was read at baptismal catechism; the blind man’s confession mirrored the candidate’s).
• Parallel with the clear baptismal interpolation in Acts 8:37.

“…this passage is a prime example of how the New Testament text was affected by ecclesiastical practices such as baptismal confession.”
— Philip W. Comfort, New Testament Text and Translation Commentary, 294–295

Without vv. 38–39a, Jesus’ words flow directly from v. 37 to v. 39b, and the blind man’s response is left unstated — which some see as deliberate Johannine reserve.

Why the Vast Majority of Scholars and All English Bibles Retain the Longer Reading

1. Overwhelming External Evidence

The longer text is attested in over 99.5% of all Greek manuscripts that contain John 9, including the earliest nearly-complete copies after P⁷⁵ (P⁶⁶ ~AD 200 already has it).

2. The Story Feels Abrupt Without It

Jesus asks, “Do you believe in the Son of Man?” and without v. 38 we never hear the answer. As James Snapp notes:

“The notion that John would write such an incomplete story is simply implausible.”

3. A Plausible Explanation for Early Omission

James Snapp and others suggest an early lector’s manuscript had marginal or supralinear marks indicating this passage was used liturgically (perhaps for baptism). A later copyist misunderstood the marks as deletion symbols and removed the text. The same mechanism may explain other early Egyptian omissions (e.g., Acts 8:37).

4. Even Some Who Prefer the Shorter Reading Acknowledge Its Extreme Antiquity

Comfort himself admits the longer reading existed by the mid-second century at latest (present in P⁶⁶). That pushes the tradition back almost to the apostolic era.

5. Respected Evangelical Scholars Accept the Longer Reading

D. A. Carson writes:

“In view of the overwhelming textual evidence supporting inclusion of the words, it is best to judge them original… One might as easily hypothesize that the omission… originated in a lectionary that sought to unify Jesus’ teaching by jumping from v. 37 to v. 39.”
— D. A. Carson, The Gospel According to John (PNTC), 379

The NET Bible translators were strongly tempted to omit the words but ultimately retained them in the text (with a note), as did every major English translation.

The Theological Significance

If authentic (as the evidence strongly suggests), John 9:38 is the only place in the Fourth Gospel where someone explicitly worships (προσεκύνησεν) Jesus with the verb normally reserved for God (cf. John 4:20–24; 12:20). Jesus receives the worship without rebuke — a powerful affirmation of his deity.

Yet even if one adopts the shorter reading, John’s towering Christology is unaffected (John 1:1; 5:18; 8:58; 10:30; 20:28, etc.). We will explore that fully in Part 2.

Conclusion of Part 1

While a handful of very early (mostly Egyptian) witnesses omit John 9:38–39a, the combination of:

• overwhelming manuscript support,
• the narrative incompleteness created by omission,
• a plausible mechanism for early accidental deletion, and
• the extreme antiquity of the longer tradition (mid-2nd century or earlier)

…leads the vast majority of textual scholars and all modern English Bibles to retain the words:

“Lord, I believe,” and he worshiped him.

In Part 2 we will see that the worship of Jesus as God permeates the entire Gospel of John — with or without John 9:38.

• Christology
• Deity of Christ
• Gospel of John
• Jesus
• Textual Criticism